Because if [livejournal.com profile] murnkay does it, it has to be good

May. 16th, 2006 09:59 am
xoder: (Embrace the Penguin!)
[personal profile] xoder
Today is ask me anything day.

So go to it. And if you have multiple questions, go to it again and again!

(no subject)

Date: 2006-05-17 01:36 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] xoder.livejournal.com
We know from earlier proofs that π is irrational (http://www.lrz-muenchen.de/~hr/numb/pi-irr.html). It Stands To Reason1, that a number with no representation p/q (for p, q ∈ Z) could not have a representation p2/q2.

1 "It Stands To Reason" means it's intuitively correct, but I have no idea how to prove it. Sorry.

(no subject)

Date: 2006-05-17 02:00 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] zandperl.livejournal.com
It Stands To Reason, that a number with no representation p/q (for p, q ∈ Z) could not have a representation p^2/q^2.

I thought so too, until it was pointed out to me that sqrt(2) is irrational. It might have something to do with transcendentality.... Hm....

(no subject)

Date: 2006-05-17 02:33 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] xoder.livejournal.com
Ah! Yes, I would expect that the transcendentality would be a better place to look. After all, the fact that π cannot be the solution of an algebraic equation is a very weird one, and probably where you can find it, but I'm out of proof practice, and sleepy, and at work. Why don't you have your students do it for extra credit work ;-)
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